From: artful on
On Jan 30, 5:17 am, glird <gl...(a)aol.com> wrote:
> On Jan 25, 10:27 am, cjcountess <cjcount...(a)yahoo.com> wrote:> On Jan 25, 9:23 am, "Inertial" <relativ...(a)rest.com> wrote:
>
> > > > cj: Even John Archibald Wheeler agrees with
>
> me, that E=hf/c^2 is a valid equation. ...
>  and I have taken it out of the imaginary realm,
>  into the real realm of natural units. ...
>    You even deny that John Archibald Wheeler, uses the equation E=hf/
> c^2, in a book, when it is right before your eyes. >
>
> > > Show a link to the actual text. Because it
>
> is NOT a valid equation ... even a fool like
> Porat could see that. >
>
> > > > Are you still in denial that E=hf/c^2 is a
>
> valid equation that even John A Wheeler uses? >
>
>
>
> > Here is the link again,http://books.google.com
> > /books?id=PDA8YcvMc_QC&pg=PA263&lpg=PA263&dq=e...
>
>   I looked and found this, by Wheeler:
> "In conventional units, E_conv = hf ... . Divide by c^2 to convert to
> units of mass: E = hf/c^2."
>   Accordingly, although Wheeler might not understand his own
> equations, he DID write this one, as Countess said.

And you'll note, as explained, that the E there is a value for MASS ..
not an energy value. His use of E there was poor to the point of
being misleading and wrong.

Sayins E = hf/c^2 is a valid formula for energy is INCORRECT.

It would be like saying E = ma is a valid formula for energy. It is
only a valid formula if you are using E as a symbol for force (not
energy).
From: kado on
On Jan 29, 3:55 pm, artful <artful...(a)hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> And you'll note, as explained, that the E there is a value for MASS ..
> not an energy value. His use of E there was poor to the point of
> being misleading and wrong.
>
> Sayins E = hf/c^2 is a valid formula for energy is INCORRECT.
>
> It would be like saying E = ma is a valid formula for energy. It is
> only a valid formula if you are using E as a symbol for force (not
> energy).

How right you are.

The following information may assist in the
understanding of this particular topic of the
validity of E = hf/c^2, and the subject that I
am pursuing, i.e., the even more basic validity
of Einstein's proof of E = mc^2 on which your
topic sits.

Both Drs. Dicke and Wheeler were very brilliant
theorists/scientists. Furthermore, both contributed
greatly to physics. Moreover, both were at
Princeton University at the same time on several
occasions during their careers, notable near the
end of their lives.

Nevertheless, there seems to have been huge,
unbridgeable philosophical gap between these two
gentlemen.

Dr. Wheeler was a firm believer of Descartes’
proposition that mathematics drives physics. This
is evident in his ardent support of Einstein’s
Special and especially the General Theories of
Relativity. (Now realize that Einstein’s theories
are all based on mathematics, with absolutely no
empirical experiments, just thought experiments.
So it is POSSIBLE that Wheeler did not even
question whether Einstein’s ‘proof’ that E = mc^2
is correct or not, and just accepted as true on
‘faith’. Please note that the last sentence is
just a supposition of mine, I have no evidence
one way or the other.)
Nevertheless, this notion that Wheeler was
entrenched in the validity of mathematics is also
evident by the paths taken by his students, some
that in turned out to be eminent theorists and
scientists in themselves, e.g., Dr. Richard
Feynman (just about everything, but notably
particle physics), Dr. Kip Thorne (String Theory),
and Dr. Hugh Everett III (Multiple Universes, that
was initially formulated as an alternative to
Bohr’s Copenhagen Interpretation of Quantum
Mechanics that he [Everett] considered pure BS),
the last two solely based on mathematics, and
Feynman very heavy on math.
Whether or not Wheeler believed in the Philosophy
of Idealism or not is not important. However it is
crucial to accept that Descartes did, and his
proposition that math drives physics is solely
based on this philosophy.

On the other hand, Dr. Dicke and his colleagues
(e.g., Drs. David T. Wilkinson [for whom the
Microwave Anisotropy Probe was renamed the WMAP),
Peter Roll, and P.J.E. Peebles [who I mentioned
before, and may not get the acclaim he deserves
from mainline cosmology because he (Pebbles)
speaks the truth], his students and the students
of his colleagues (e.g., Dr. George Smoot, who
discovered a lot about the CMBR and the nature of
the universe) are not so bent on the truth of
mathematical physics, and thought similar to, or
exactly like Isaac Newton.
So these gentleman placed great emphasis on the
Natural Phenomena exhibited by Nature, and the
Natural Phenomenon demonstrated during and at
the conclusion of empirical experiments.
These theorist/scientists certainly did employ a
lot of mathematics, but used it as a tool, not
the driving concept.

So it may be possible that Wheeler simply
accepted Einstein's E = mc^2 on faith, and also
rejected Dickes findings on principle.

So it all boils down to what side of the fence you
stand on. It is impossible to logically straddle
this philosophical fence, because if you do, all
your ideas are then pure BS and you are an idiot.

In other words; you can accept either the
Philosophy of Idealism or that formulated by
Isaac Newton. These two are mutual exclusive,
it’s one or the other.

I think it’s pretty clear where I stand.

There is one more very important fact I would like
to bring up at this time. I conducted an empirical
experiment to determine if the mathematics of the
prevailing idea of the Principle of the Conservation
of Momentum is correct or not. Even this simple
idea of mainline science is empirically
demonstrated as wrong.

You can read all about it if and/or when my
copyrighted manuscript is published.


D.Y. Kadoshima
From: cjcountess on
D.K.Y

Why should energy, momentum, and force, have different equations?
(F=mv^2), is essentialy (E=mc^2) and (1/2KE=mv^2) and (p=mv) is (F=mv)
as many equations are just the universal inverse square law, with just
a change in the simbol to specify the application. And furthemore, the
difference between (F=mv^2) (F=mv) and (KE=1/2mv^2) could be
clearified to show their sameness and difference, and make equations
more simply understood.

I think that (E=mc^2) is a valid equation for the "energy/mass"
equivalence, mainly because geometricaly, (c^2) exibits a backward
spinning, standing sphererical wave, making two rotations at right
angle to eachother, with (spin 1/2), and angular momentum (h/2pi/2)
and (-1 charge).

It follows the logicaly and historical steps of
2) Einstein discovered (E=mc^2) for electron's/matter

3) de'Broglie discovered (E=hf=mc^2), for electron
of -1 charge, and that electron was also a wave.

4) Bohr discovered that the wavelength of electron is
equal to circumference of circle, with
angular momentum of a multiple integer of (h/2pi),

making it twice reinforced.
And, it is so simple, logical, mathematical, geometrical, and
corresponds with empericaly varified evidence, that I think it is
statisticaly very improbable that it is not correct. And if I say so
myself, it is a beautiful symetrical theory.
Furthermore, (E=mc^2) = (F=mc^2) geometricaly, and demonstrates that
the same law that compresses energy into matter, from (E=hf) to
(E=mc^2), pushes matter to gravitate togather, at (F=mv^2 = F=Gmm /
r^2)
As it is clearly demonstrated that (G) the grvity constant = to (L/
T^2) = (c^2) which is the ultimate (L/T^2), on the quantum level. And
just as energy created by c^2 as a balence of centripital and
centrifugal forces, can also be measured as (cx2pi) with angular
momentum of (h/2pi), (h/2pi/2 if it makes two rotations), clearly just
as (r or radius x 2pi = cicumfrence), (c = h = r) in this case, and
even = (sqrt -1), concerning the electron.
The evidence is overwealming and there is really no way around it.
(c^2 = h/2pi = G) and (c = h = i = 2pi) as new Planck relations
THIS CHANGES EVERYTHING =

Conrad J Countess



From: kado on
On Jan 30, 4:10 am, cjcountess <cjcount...(a)yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> Why should energy, momentum, and force, have different equations?
>

Because these are different qualities.

I can see that you do not understand this,
but you had better accept this as a truth
or you will always have uncertainties, and/or
conundrums, and/or paradoxes in your
understanding of, as put by Einstein;
"the mind of God".

D.Y.K.

From: cjcountess on
On Jan 30, 4:12 pm, k...(a)nventure.com wrote:
> On Jan 30, 4:10 am,cjcountess<cjcount...(a)yahoo.com> wrote:
>
>
>
> > Why should energy, momentum, and force, have different equations?
>
> Because these are different qualities.
>
> I can see that you do not understand this,
> but you had better accept this as a truth
> or you will always have uncertainties, and/or
> conundrums, and/or paradoxes in your
> understanding of, as put by Einstein;
> "the mind of God".
>
> D.Y.K.

You speak very philosophicaly, but you obviously do not understand as
much as you think. Force is energy, and that is preciesly why (E=mv^2)
is same as (F=mv^2). The only difference is that (E=mc^2), imploys the
highest velocity squared, which is c^2. And momentum, is not much
different. That is why preciesly again, that (p=mv) is identical to
(F=mv), without the velocity being squared. (KE=1/2mv^2), has its own
reason for the (1/2), which is the "equal and opposite" "action/
reaction" pair, which each share half the total energy, according to
some. But there is another reason it can be employed, and that is the
(spin 1/2) aspect of a particle, which splits the angular momentum
from (h/2pi) to (h/2pi/2).

As for the (F=mv^2) as oposed to (F=mv), that was argued on "Einsteins
Big Idea", on PBS Nova,
but the argument is incomplete, because they do not unrstand the
relationship between v^2 and c^2, and how energy turns to rest mass at
c^2.
This is what I bring to the table. A simplest yet most profound
discovery.

You do not believe that energy and matter are equal and related
through conversion factor of c^2, as I gather from your post, or am I
wrong in this interpretation? And so you dispute what I say. But I
have analogical, logical, mathematical, stitistical, and empierical
evidence, to prove it, and you have an opportunity to correct
yourself, if you can get over your pride.

Do you realy think you understand the difference between energy,
momentum, and force? Because in order to do that, you must understand
their likeness also.
Do you realy think that you understand the "Mind of God"? In order to
do that, you must first understand your own mind.

Conrad J Countess

P.S.
see http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/nova/transcripts/3213_einstein.html

NARRATOR: Du Châtelet learned from the brilliant men around her, but
she quickly developed ideas of her own. Much to the horror of her
mentors, she even dared to suspect that there was a flaw in the great
Sir Isaac Newton's thinking.
Newton stated that the energy of an object, the force with which it
collided with another object, could very simply be accounted for by
its mass times its velocity. In correspondence with scientists in
Germany, Du Châtelet learned of another view, that of Gottfried
Leibniz. He proposed that moving objects had a kind of inner spirit.
He called it "vis viva," Latin for "living force." Many discounted his
ideas, but Leibniz was convinced that the energy of an object was made
up of its mass times its velocity, squared.
Also notice the very first sentence of second parragraph,
Newton stated that the energy of an object, the force with which it
collided with another

Did Newton himself, equate force and energy?